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Supposing that this verse is not original (as I cannot find it in either Greek nor Coptic translations), why is it that the church includes it in the lectionary of the Feast of the Theophany? 

Authenticating these verses is not of major significance to us as believers or even to those who are merely studying Christianity. It poses no threat to the Christian faith or any Church doctrine. These verses are not in any way out of context, but rather reinforce the message of the Holy Trinity as mentioned in others parts of St. John's letter. In the wisdom of the Church, these words are pertinent to the understanding of the Theophany.