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It has also been noted that the early fathers of the church do not quote this verse as it is. Do you know of any church father (preferably before the 16th century as this is the approximate time in which the verse at question was allegedly placed into the bible) who quotes this verse in his writings? 

While these can be checked for more detail, "Irenaeus on Heretics," "Tertullian on Marcion," and the "Muratorian Canon," are amongst the early church writings that commented on 1 John but did not stir up controversies regarding these verses from latter or contemporary church fathers. We can presume that whether they were included or omitted in the early years of the Church, the Church is satisfied with their placement within this context even until now.