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Why had St. Matthew and St. Luke mentioned the genealogy of St. Joseph; although St. Joseph had no biological relationship with our Lord Jesus? Could your Grace please explain?

St. Joseph remained celibate and indeed had no biological relationship with our Lord Jesus Christ. St. Matthew distinctly draws one's attention that it was St. Mary, of whom, Jesus was born and not St. Joseph, who was St. Mary's husband and of direct lineage to David. 
 
The Gospel according to St. Matthew was directed to the Jewish nation who was accustomed to genealogies through the male descendants. The acknowledgment of Christ's lineage proved that He was a descendant of Abraham and officially authorized to the throne of David. [St. Mathew recognized St. Mary (Matthew 1:16) and emphasized only four other women, whose roles in the history of the Jewish people were distinguished, either by good or bad, and thus giving hope to everyone].
 
St. Luke traces our Lord's genealogy back to Adam. He begins his genealogy by stating "Now Jesus Himself...being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph..." (Luke 3:23). This phrase reveals the operative understanding that some people may have had regarding the fatherhood of Jesus Christ, the physical Son of Mary.

So, although the Lord was not a biological son to St. Joseph; yet, according to the law, He was considered as a son to Joseph, St. Mary's husband.