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Did God intend for women to be subordinate to men? Lecture 3 in the 2001 WWF convention implies that God is just and that man and woman are equal in the eyes of God as you gave many examples to support this notion. However in Genesis 3:16 God quotes "I will greatly multiply your sorrow in conception; in pain you shall bring forth children; your desire shall be for your husband, AND HE SHALL RULE OVER YOU" (my own emphasis).  
 
Can you please explain the Coptic stance on this thought and specifically on this verse? If the Copts take this verse at face value, is there room for feminists or feminism in the Coptic Orthodox church?

To answer your question we need to agree on what the definition of feminism is. Feminism as defined in the Webster dictionary is the movement to win political, economical and social equality for women. It is concerned  with the role of women and their rights in the whole society. However, the Holy Book of Genesis 3:16 speaks specifically about the relationship between husband and wife in a family situation and not Society at large.

At their creation, both man and woman were formed with equal rights, but the advent of sin and the fact that Eve had sinned first made her subjection to the will of her husband as one part of the consequences of her fall. Sin caused obedience with humility and meekness to be a heavy yoke.

Lecture 3 in the 2001 WWF nicely clarifies the role of women in Christianity, the equal rights but different roles, and then discusses the role of men and women in marriage. It is in this relation framework that women should be submissive to their husbands and husbands have authority over their wives. This does not mean that one gender is better than the other, but God's command is for the husband to lead. This does not make the wife inferior in any way. Please reread section VI on the role of men and women in marriage and specially the comments in this section and you will find the answer to your question.